Sure. Let’s compare the situation of having a beer v having a glass of milk whilst we’re at it then.so we can't compare any situation to any other situation? OK then
Every situation is different, but we can look at similarities.
It is staggering. But I disagree with any suggesting that the attitudes, culture and politics that resulted in the WW2 and the Holocaust were all unique to Germany. Fascism was big in the UK and the US, not as big, but still big. Its a myth that all germans supported the Nazis, and its also a myth that all English and Americans were against the Nazis. Us good, them evil. White people, the KKK were bashing and murdering people for hundreds of years until the mid 1960s and people sat by and did next to nothing until attitudes in the North reached a tipping point, 20 years after WW2.
Apples and Oranges maybe, but the fact remains, Hitler and Goring copied Southern US legislation to institute discimination against a race of people.
Why did it tip over into catastrophe in Germany and not elsewhere? To begin to answer that question, you have to make comparisons. Does Germany just have a higher proportion of evil people? A lower proportion of compassionate people? Is it down to the uniqueness of Hitler and his obsessiveness and effectiveness as a leader?
Acknowledging the domestic ‘Jim Crow’ discriminatory issues of a few southern states in the USA at the time, I’m not really buying into it being a strong parallel for what occurred in Germany between 1924 and 1945 which resulted in the extermination of over 6.5 million Jews and a world war that claimed directly and indirectly over 80 million people.